Hi, I am posting this in the Arabic forum as well. My understanding of Greek is not very good at all, but I have a dictionary and I can read it fine. Just the lyrics or the lyrics and the translation would be fine (I understand a little of it, Christos aneste ek nekron...). Yuvcharisto.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=m00TMaDgCd0
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Greek-Arabic Hymn by Fayruz
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I translated it as well, cause I think that just with your dictionary you won't be able to understand... it's in ancient greek.
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Χριστὸς ἀνέστη ἐκ νεκρῶν, θανάτῳ θάνατον πατήσας καὶ τοῖς ἐν τοῖς μνήμασι ζωὴν χαρισάμενος.
Hristos anesti ek nekron, thanato thanaton patisas ke tis en tis mnimasi zoin harisamenos.
Christ is risen from the dead, with death he defeated death and to those in the graves He gave life.Άνθρωποι τύχης είδωλον επλάσαντο, πρόφασιν ιδίης αβουλίης.
~Δημόκριτος~ -
This is an Easter liturgical chant.
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Thanks a lot! I'm actually studying Koine Greek from the Bible, by myself. I didn't know the dative was used in such a way, like the ablative in Latin. Thanks again.
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Historically there was a marked degree of syntactic overlap between the dative in Greek and the ablative in Latin. The Latin ablative combines the functions of the ablative proper (expressing separation, = "from"), the instrumental and locative, whereas the Greek dative combines those of the intrumental locative, as well as the dative. If therefore in a sentence with code-switching in, say, Cicero's letters a Greek dative adjective with instrumental function were made to quialify a Latin noun in the ablative (also with instrumental function), syntactic harmony would be achieved, because the Greek dative and the Latin ablative both carried this function. The one serious discrepancy between the two cases lies in the fact that the Greek dative did not inherit the functions of the Indo-European ablative; in Greek those went to the genitive (often accompanying a preposition).
Originally Posted by Marcus Aurelius
