Hi there, Soorati-Angel! Common verbs in Persian - set 1

I am not speaking Farsi (yet), I agree some of these look strange, but to me they look otherwise allright.
So I think we just have to learn them by heart..
The one that interests me really is "to smell" as Easy Persian writes it as follows."buid", Buy". How is the infinitiv written in that case?
Your solution sounds better to me. Lets wait what our teachers have to say

The infinitive for writing 'to smell' is booyidan (buidan).
Yes I will just wait for the teachers to come and see this.

Thank you though!!

My question here for today is also about formal and informal.
Is it very important to know both of them and also when to use the formal instead of the informal?
Our languages in the West have seen a dimishing use of formal (=courteous). I could imagine this is not the case in countries such as
Iran. Am I right there?

Originally Posted by ps

And I've a question;

how must I write the plural nouns? For example; is چشمهای in capital letters CHESHMAYE ?
Or دستهای is DASTAYE? Or DASTEHAYE?

Your two words would be "CHESHMHÂYE" AND "DASTHÂYE". Their informal forms would be چشمای CHESHMÂYE دستای DASTÂYE.

There is a very crucial note in your post that I will explain in the following post.

There is a very common question by almost every one of you my friends. Let me just quote one:

[B]

Originally Posted by 3llawi

3- اندیشه ی تفسیر صفر
sometimes i see letters thrown in the middle of the sentence ?!!
what's that mean ?

I'm sure that all of you see those ِ -e and ِ ی -ye in Persian sentences. We call both of them "Izāfa" or "Ezāfé". I have found a very helpful explanation in wikipedia which I will quote here, if you have further questions just ask me.

Izāfa:

"The Izāfa or ezāfé (Persian: اضافه), also written as İzafet, Izafat and Izofa, is a Persian language grammatical construct which links two words together; it consists of an unstressed vocal -e or -i (with a connecting -y- after vowels) that sometimes approximately corresponds to the English preposition of. It is generally not indicated in writing.

Common uses of the ezafe are:

Possessive: barādar-e Maryam 'Maryam's brother' (this can also apply to pronominal possession—barādar-e man 'my brother'—but in speech it is much more common to use possessive suffixes: barādar-am).

Adjective-noun: barādar-e bozorg 'the big brother'

Given name/title-family name: mohammad-e mosaddegh Mohammad Mosaddeq, āghā-ye mosaddegh Mr. Mosaddeq"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iz%C4%81fa

Originally Posted by Soorati_Angel

Oh I see then...
for the example 'to think'.
If I wanted to say 'I thought' I would ' man fekr mikardam'
And if I wanted to say 'I'm thinking' I would say 'man fekr mikonam' (are these correct?)

Perfect, congratulation my friend.

Originally Posted by Soorati_Angel

And when I want to make the sentence or word negative, would it be like this?? :
ex: gerye nakon

Exactly. Gerye Nakon = Don't Cry (Imperative Mood)

Originally Posted by Soorati_Angel

I was just trying to make sentences for using 'kon/kard'.. are they correct? Excuse me for my sentece structure btw.

- man nemitoonam download konam -> 100% correct

- man emrooz mehmooni konam -> No, you shouldn't use "Kardan" here, insted you should use "Dadan" or "Dashtan", so it would be:
من امروز مهمونی دارم = Man Emrooz mehmooni daram

or

من امروز مهمونی می دم = Man emrooz mehmooni midam

- to emrooz kaar koni (or would it be 'to emrooz kaar mikoni') -> the first one is correct grammatically, but we don't use it in our everyday speech. Instead, we use the latter one.

- man ghabool kardam ->100% orrect

Originally Posted by Soorati_Angel

Are these correct?? I found these from a website but I wasn't so sure if they were correct because some just didn't look right to me...

Infinitive Past Root Present Root Word
To give Dad Dah Dadan
To have Dasht Dar Dashtan
To hit Zad Zan Zadan
To eat Khord Khor Khordan
To go Raft Rav Raftan
To come Amad Ay Amadan
To bring Avard Avar Avardan
To take Bord Bar Bordan
- - -
To see Did Bin Didan
To hear Shenid Shenav Shenidan
To smell Buid Booy Booyidan
To taste Cheshid Chesh Cheshidan
To touch Lams kard Lams kon Lams kardan

Yes, they're absolutely right. Thank you for mentioning them here.

Originally Posted by Soorati_Angel

The infinitive for writing 'to smell' is booyidan (buidan).

So nice. You're a great student my friend just like our dear Amaryn.

Originally Posted by amaryn

My question here for today is also about formal and informal.
Is it very important to know both of them and also when to use the formal instead of the informal?
Our languages in the West have seen a dimishing use of formal (=courteous). I could imagine this is not the case in countries such as
Iran. Am I right there?

Thank you for your good question dear Amaryn. In our culture, when we want to talk to older people, our parents, teachers, authorities and someone we don't know well, we usually talk in formal way. Just like the French, we use second or third plural forms of the verbs and indicators for that person.

Our written language is also in formal way. We don't use informal words in it. Although nowadays some writers use informal words in their stories.

We also have "informal" and "slang" just like European languages.

Oh, my dear teacher Bijan! I see I wrote "dimishing", a non existant word, but "diminishing" is correct and you understood it
immediately without asking
In our culture informal language has deeply penetrated our literature , be it prosa be it poetry, and also spoken language is going into that direction.
Thank you for encouragement calling us good students. We look bravely ahead to see the forest instead of only one tree in this case

Originally Posted by veryclever1980

Yes, they're absolutely right. Thank you for mentioning them here.



So nice. You're a great student my friend just like our dear Amaryn.

Thank you so much!!!

I was trying to create sentences using the verbs I have posted before...
but I know for sure I made some sort of error in my sentece structure ... can someone correct me??

here they are:

- I gave a gift to Sara
Man ye hedie dadam be Sara (informal)
Man yek hedie dadam be Sara (formal)

- I have a car (present).
Man ye mashin daram (informal)
Man yek mashin daram (formal)
Or this one??
Man ye mashin dashtam (informal)
Man yek mashin dashtam (formal)
Is this one past tense then?!


- I am eating kabab.
Man mikhordam kabab (or is this ‘I ate kabab’ (present tense)??)

- We went to school.
Ma be madrese raftim

- We are going to El Goli.
Ma be el goli raven (I feel like I’m using the present root wrong.. am I??!)
Should it be instead: ma be el goli raftim???

- Sara brought a gift to the party.
Sara ye hedie be mehmooni avard (informal)
Sara yek hedie be mehmooni avard (formal)

- Aynaz took the gift from Amin
Aynaz hedie ra bord az Amin

- You took the book
To hedie ra bordi
^- would there be a formal way of saying this??

- Sara saw Amin.
Sara Amin did

- I see the fish.
Man mahi ra binam
Or is it ‘man mahi ra didam’
Because I’m using present root…

- I heard the window break.
Man panjare shekaste ra shenidam.

- You hear music.
To muzik shenavi.

- I smell kabab.
Man kabab buidam.

- You are touching the sand.
To mase ra lams koni.
Or is it ‘to mase ra lams kardi.’

Hi Soorati angel

The phrase: "I am eating kebab" = present continuous tense, which means it should be:
"man daram mikhordam kebab!"

the present continuous tense being as follows:

man daram mikhordam
to dari mikhordi
ou dareh mikhord
ma darim mikhordam
shoma darid mikhordid
anha daran mikhordan(d)


I am quite positive this is correct. Teachers, bless this trial!

veryclever1980;

you're the best. =) Now I understand it with the plural forms. You're very lucky because you're Farsi.

So in the possessive of Ezafe I could say "Iran-e Man" and "Iran-am"?

And I've three questions;

-first about "dige(h)"? What is it in English?
-And what is the verb (to) want in Persian?
-How I must use "gerefte"? For example I often hear in musics "Delam Gerefte"?

Tashakor mikonam.
Khodahafez

Soorati-Angel! Just noticed a mistake myself

I AM EATING: the root of the present tense is KHOR: therefore present continuous tense is:

man daram mikhoram
to dari mikhori
ou dareh mikhoreh
ma darim mikhorim
shoma darid mikhorid
anha daran mikhoran
-----------------------
I wasnot blessed. Now I am

If you say: I WAS EATING: (past tense root= KHORD)
man dashtam mikhordam
to dashti mikhordi
ou dasht mikhord
ma dashtim mikhordim
shoma dashtid mikhordid
anha dashtand mikhordan(d)

Our special teachers are very busy today. But they're informed
The formal/informal interests me too an awful lot.....

I had a feeling I would be wrong for that one!
But thank you for correcting me! I see my mistakes now.

Hi again : In that case: you are touching the sand:

if "lams kon" is the present tense root shouldn't it be "to dari lams koni "the sand(?)" ??

and:

The structure in Farsi is a bit different from the english structure:

In Farsi: subject + object+ ra (article)+verb, so that would give the result which we eagerly await from our teachers

hi.amaryn.ask your question.

Originally Posted by Soorati_Angel

Are these correct?? I found these from a website but I wasn't so sure if they were correct because some just didn't look right to me...

Infinitive Past Root Present Root Word
To give Dad Dah Dadan
To have Dasht Dar Dashtan
To hit Zad Zan Zadan
To eat Khord Khor Khordan
To go Raft Rav Raftan
To come Amad Ay Amadan
To bring Avard Avar Avardan
To take Bord Bar Bordan
- - -
To see Did Bin Didan
To hear Shenid Shenav Shenidan
To smell Buid Booy Booyidan
To taste Cheshid Chesh Cheshidan
To touch Lams kard Lams kon Lams kardan

my friends they are right but
raftan :raft row
shenidan: shenid shenow
dadan dad deh

Originally Posted by amaryn

Hi again : In that case: you are touching the sand:

if "lams kon" is the present tense root shouldn't it be "to dari lams koni "the sand(?)" ??

well youre right some of them are strange but they were right.
lams kon is present root.if you wanna say that.......
sand in farsi is SHEN.PLURAL IS SHENHA.
DARI SHENHARO LAMS MIKONI