Learning Spanish language

Originally Posted by songlover26

Hola



Please expalin the word lo
eg.

Nunca lo he visto o conocido en mi vida

Y en un día, lo encontré

lthe word lo is the male form we use to call the male objets or a male person for example:
one day i found it (talking about an objet) un dia lo encontre
one day i found him (talking about a person) un dia lo encontre

in english we use two forms it and him but in spanish you can say un dia lo encontre and talk about a male person or a male thing
the female form is (la) un dia la encontre talking about a female person or female thing

Originally Posted by Zahra2008

ella pregunta si tienes Skype, es un programa por el cual quiere platicar con nosotros para practicar Español...

I don't have Skype, I'm sorry, but I referred to this query:

Originally Posted by velvet_sky

could you (or maybe Zahra) please explain the meaning of the example I gave, coz after examing what you wrote and what I read on internet, I find it that I quiet got what is it's meaning, but I am not sure... that's why I would like to know the meaning of the exact example I gave, to know if I was right???

''' se le agregan''' , a clarification is this 'se' refering to 'los' (they - meaning the endings - ra, ras, ra .... etc) and 'le' - referring to 'to it' - to be atteched to the verb ?

I meant this: so I have the sentece ' se le agregan ' and after going through the pronouns I ended with the conclusion that the ' se ' in this case should mean 'they' (in the example I gave previously, on the other page, this 'they' should refer to the endings of the verbs) and then ' le ' should mean ' to it ' (again the context I gave on the previous page, ' to it ' refers to the verbs) --- so from theese, the phrase ' se lo agregan ' should it mean - they are attached to it

lol sometimes I can't get what I mean by myself coz I tend to explain the things in a complicate way and too long sorry about that, if you get what I mean now, you can just confirm it or correct me, and from that I will know if I got everything right

[QUOTE=velvet_sky;913434]I meant this: so I have the sentece ' se le agregan ' and after going through the pronouns I ended with the conclusion that the ' se ' in this case should mean 'they' (in the example I gave previously, on the other page, this 'they' should refer to the endings of the verbs) and then ' le ' should mean ' to it ' (again the context I gave on the previous page, ' to it ' refers to the verbs) --- so from theese, the phrase ' se lo agregan ' should it mean - they are attached to it

the word "agregan" is plural, yes it relates to They (a group of things or objects)
very well now you know Spanish

jeje gracias! ¡Me alegro mucho de que ahora puedo hablar más bien que antes!

Sounds better if you say:

Originally Posted by velvet_sky

jeje gracias! ¡Me alegro mucho de que ahora puedo hablar mejor que antes!

Thank you!

Question again so I've got this

si me hubiera quedado aquí, podría trabajar (then I know (I was told) that the second part should be - podría haber trabajado) but I am not quite sure why´s that? So can please somebody help me with that? thaanks

Originally Posted by velvet_sky

Thank you!

vale ajajajajaja

(inside joke)

Originally Posted by Zahra2008

vale ajajajajaja

(inside joke)

de acuerdo

Originally Posted by velvet_sky

se lo agregan

sometimes I can't get what I mean by myself coz I tend to explain the things in a complicate way and too long

The problem is my poor English.

In the sentence "-ra, -ras, -ra, etc. se le agregan a la forma de la tercera persona del plural, etc.", you can omit "le" without problem: "-ra, -ras, etc. se agregan a la forma, etc.". Here "le" has a emphatic value and represents the syntagm "a la tercera forma del plural, etc.".

On the other hand: "Se lo agregan". For example: (Ellos) Agregan un faro al coche: Se (al coche) lo (el faro) agregan (ellos).

«Cuando el pronombre de dativo le(s) precede a alguno de los pronombres de acusativo de tercera persona lo(s), la(s), adopta la forma se: Les compré caramelos > Se los compré; Le puse los zapatos > Se los puse».
Fuente: RAE

Thank you momper! Your English is pretty good, don't be shy

In regard to my previous question, I found out that what I wrote is refering to the 3rh conditional in Spanish, isn't it? So are the condicionals tenses in Spanish the same (refering to the same) as in English?

Originally Posted by velvet_sky

Thank you momper! Your English is pretty good, don't be shy

In regard to my previous question, I found out that what I wrote is refering to the 3rh conditional in Spanish, isn't it? So are the condicionals tenses in Spanish the same (refering to the same) as in English?

ohh the answer to that questions is on the page that I always recommend to those who are learning spanish (greetings to VivaPalestina ) take a look on it, it has some good stuff

http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/conditional.htm

as zahra said I'm not good with explanations either

Auu gracias! I kinda forgot about this VERY useful page! ;p I wrote on google spanish condicional and the link which always popped up were from other sites.. ;p I will definitely check the one you gave me now

btw who/what is VivaPalestina? (just was curious are you refering to me? lol)

she is an user of the forum that was learning spanish, on this thread same as you but I haven't seen her around in quite some time http://www.allthelyrics.com/forum/me...ina-73183.html

ahh, I get it now Well hope she will be back ;p it's nice when most people post around and especially here in the Spanish thread ;p

Holaaa gente
Tengo unas preguntas, como siempre, jaja

soo could you please give me a sentace using the work 'errante' which means wandering?? Coz I am a bit confused where and how should I use it :d
annd could you please tell me what tense is used here and how it is conjugated (the tense?) and in particular why haber is used in infinitive and then a past participle for is used?? heeelp
---- Javier es acusado de haber robado las joyas.

Gracias por adelantado (sun)

well the flying Dutchman is translated as "El holandes errante" I can't really think in something right now, maybe the wandering jew? Judío errante although it can be offensive

and robado yes remember the verbs that end in -ar form the past participle by adding -ado
robar - robado

and verbs that end with -er and -ir form the past participle by adding -ido
comer - comido

except some irregular verbs

I think you got me wrong what I mean in the sentence given 'Javier es acusado en haber robado las joays' I wanted to know the exact tense used, and also why the first verb is in invinitive whereas the second is conjucated (I remember they conjugation, I just am wandering about the tense used ) Thank u

"Javier es acusado..." is a passive clause:
For example:
Si alguien me acusa, yo soy acusado.
(If someone accuses me, I'm accused).

When you use the verb "acusar", you must use the prepositions "de" or "por":
«Me han acusado de (of) robar tres cajas de cervezas»; «Me han acusado por (because of) robar tres cajas de cervezas».

And "... haber robado" is an "infinitivo compuesto" (compound infinitive):
«Se forma con el infinitivo del verbo haber y el participio del verbo que se conjuga. Haber estado». RAE

ahh, thank you momper got it now ;p